Everyone is saying that this killing was by a “psychotic” woman, when that’s not what she was diagnosed with and the Dr that assessed her even stated she was not psychotic and doesn’t have a psychotic disorder. This manslaughter of a child, should therefore not be counted as a death caused by psychosis
I think this statement highlights your confusion.
There is not a single DSV-5 psychotic disorder that can be made after an initial meeting with an acutely unwell patient (without a thorough collateral history). They are all dependent on timeframes and a careful history of symptoms.
So it’s not relevant that she wasn’t diagnosed with a psychotic disorder at the time of presentation. Psychiatrists don’t tend to rush these diagnoses. She may have been subsequently.
The reports say that she has “psychotic symptoms”. Psychiatric articles on acute psychosis say that it is defined by patients who have psychotic symptoms. Do you have your own, unique definition where acute psychosis isn’t synonymous with having acute psychotic symptoms. Could you link to it?