Could we have a break it down for me style of thread on Gillick and Fraser? I see transactivists saying that because Starmer said in the interview with Mumsnet that he doesn't think children should be socially transitioned without consent of patents that this means he doesn't understand Gillick Competence or wants to get rid of it thus preventing under 16s accessing the contraceptive pill and abortions without their parents consent. But contraception seems to come under Fraser Guidelines not Gillick?
My understanding is that Gillick Competence is for medical procedures. The Cass Review cass.independent-review.uk/publications/interim-report/ says that social transitioning is not a neutral act and should occur under medical supervision (from memory). So is social transition a medical procedure? How does this relate to the Kiera Bell case where accusations of breaching Gillick Competence have also been made.
I found this by the NSPCC
learning.nspcc.org.uk/child-protection-system/gillick-competence-fraser-guidelines#article-top
But it doesn't give a lot of examples and given the case law around this would suggest this is not a clear cut piece of legislation.
It would be really useful to have a clear thread on this subject that can be referred to and used to back up discussions. Thank you.