Gender identity is a person's own innate sense of what sex they are. The scientific consensus is that it's biological in origin. But you don't need to understand what it is in order to observe that attempts to force people to change whatever it is are harmful.
Have you read this article which 9toenails posted a link to earlier in the thread?
arcdigital.media/what-is-gender-identity-10ce0da71999
Could you address the points I made in an earlier post about this article, and those of 9toenails which I quoted in my post:
www.mumsnet.com/Talk/womens_rights/4187324-Conversion-Therapy-and-a-Survey-of-25-896-LGBTQ-youth?msgid=105555777
Using the APA's definition of gender identity (which is the same as the definition when it was originally defined by Stoller in the 1960s), a person's 'gender identity' must, by definition, match their physical sex, since it refers to the knowledge of what sex they are (apart from in a small number of cases of intersex people in which it is only an apparent match - this is not relevant when discussing transgenderism).
If you disagree with this definition, please will you define clearly what you mean by gender identity and how this can be objectively observed in an individual. If such a person is to have their 'gender identity' changed, there must be something called a gender identity which can be objectively observed, so that it would be clear whether the conversion therapy had, in fact, succeeded. How would this be verified?
If it is not something which can be objectively observed, and amounts only to statements a person makes, such as 'I am a woman' or 'I am a man', and perhaps their own thoughts (which obviously can't be observed) is conversion therapy actually simply attempting to restrict that person's freedom of speech and thought?