I read that as...
We support the removal of the two year requirement.
We support the removal of spousal consent.
However, we need clarification to balance all aspects of EA10.
I can’t work out if this is the ultimate bland, fits all, suits non statement. Or, we just don’t want our butts sued - push it up the line.
Although I am confused what impacts there are from this on banks? I hold accounts in both my maiden and married name. As long as the bank can ID you, why do they need to be involved with GRC?