They do indeed. Personally I did not pay for others on a date for that very reason (although being in a relationship I do now but I feel that's different).
And ABeauty I honestly don't understand. Edit: this is a bit long I think but I am genuinely interested, so would be nice to hear your thoughts.
What is the difference between a woman meeting a man getting aroused and having sex and a woman meeting a man who says hey look I will pay you, do you want to have sex? One reason is "passion" (or what you want to call it) the other is "money". But it's not really money, it's what money can buy, so it could be anything really. Why does consent require "passion"?
If there is some guy asking strangers to do something, they decline and he then offers them money and they do it, were they extorted? Here we also have a case of "not freely given consent".
What about a hypothetical. A woman is approached by another woman who tells her that her employer will pay ten million pounds for sex. And she says yes. Imagine two cases, one the employer is a famous actor whom the woman would have had sex with anyway and two the employer is some repulsive asshole. Would you consider both scenarios the same, as consent not freely given?