On Sexual Consent

53 replies

steina · 03/03/2014 16:38

If consent is given to sex and that consent has a proviso, which is purposefully not met... should it become rape/sexual assault?
An example would be Julian Assange style condom deceit.
I'm not sure where I stand on this one so input is appreciated.

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Original poster

steina · 03/03/2014 17:16

Whilst I agree with those points and they were my position on this subject- where does that leave a woman who stops taking the pill without telling her partner, even though consent was only granted on his part with a pill-proviso?
Has she now committed rape/sexual assault?
On one level it seems you can't have one without the other. Is there a way around this?

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ISeeYouShiverWithAntici · 03/03/2014 16:46

I can't really find an appropriate comparison but if I give someone my purse and tell them to take £20 and they take £200, have they not stolen £180? By giving consent for £20 have I given consent for any amount?

If I say that someone can have my trailer if they take my rubbish to the dump and they chuck my rubbish on the floor and take my trailer, can I demand it back? By agreeing to give my trailer once a criteria had been met, have I given consent for my trailer to be taken without that criteria having been met?

So yes. If you have clearly set out the terms, and those are disregarded or unilaterally changed by other person, then you did not give consent.

You gave consent for what you wanted to happen. If what you wanted is not what happened, there was no consent.

LineRunner · 03/03/2014 16:42

Yes, I think it becomes rape / sexual assault, because the other person did something deliberately without consent.

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