'I know someone who is collared and in a D/s relationship, she and her fiance have been together for over 10 years.. and really, in that relationship is actually the sub who has all the power, because the Dom can only do things with their consent.
The minute a sub declares its off limits, it stops, no question, because not to do so would violate the terms of the agreement because while a sub agree's to certain things, the Dom also has to agree to put the subs needs first.'
I do not understand this. How does the sub have all the power? The dom can only do thingss with the sub's consent, but surely the sub can only have things done to them with the dom's consent. So If the sub decides they want the dom to cut the sub's hair into a new style with a pair of garden secateurs, presumably the dom could then say that actually they have no sexual interest in either hairdressing or gardening tools, and have a bit of a phobia of sharp objects, so will not be participating in such an event.
Or does the dom have to do whatever the sub wants, in order to put the 'sub's needs first' in which case that is not really consent either?
I can't see how the underlying consent concerning specific acts is different from any other type of non BDSM sexual behaviour. The issue is surely why people want to engage in behaviour that involves violence, power or the sexualisation of consent itself, and if those acts are more or less prone to creation and/or perpetuation of abusive relationships, or cause psychological developments that are damaging to the people in the relationship or to the way they relate to the wider world.