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Pedants' corner

None is/are

10 replies

Catzenobia · 25/03/2008 14:08

As far as I am aware, it is correct to say "none of them is" etc. as none is singular. However, it does sound obsessively pedantic. What do you think?

OP posts:
Scampmum · 25/03/2008 14:09

I say 'none [of ...] is'. People give me weird looks.

PrettyCandles · 25/03/2008 14:19

none = not one, so "none of them is" is technically correct. But much correct grammar sounds pedantic in these days of laxity and foreign influence. [pomposity icon]

RosaIsRed · 25/03/2008 14:31

None is. Be correct and never mind the funny looks.

Catzenobia · 25/03/2008 17:06

Oh good, it's not just me then.

OP posts:
Scampmum · 25/03/2008 20:56

I think not splitting infinitives sounds more silly but I still do that. (Don't split them - wow I'm really advertising my pedantic grammatical credentials here ).

PrettyCandles · 25/03/2008 21:21

Not splitting infinitives really is a silly rule, and one that, as modern, forward-thinking pedants, we should really drop. It only became a rule in English because 'they' were looking for ways of defining the grammar of English, and decided to model it on Latin - the 'perfect' language. But in Latin, as in French and other more closely Latin-based languages, the infinitive is one word, not two as in English. So you cannot split an inifinitive in Latin (or French, Spanish, etc). But that rule is irrelevant in English.

So I, as a fully-fledged pedant, maintain my right to well and truly split my infinitives.

(With a nod to Churchill, WS.)

jura · 26/03/2008 22:59

This reply has been deleted

Message withdrawn at poster's request.

jura · 26/03/2008 23:00

This reply has been deleted

Message withdrawn at poster's request.

harpsichordcarrier · 26/03/2008 23:02

lol at modern, forward-thinking pedants
that would be your actual bona fide oxymoron, then?

VeniVidiVickiQV · 26/03/2008 23:03


Yes - none = not one

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