I quote my source as being a holy chappie on R2 the other morning who explains that the King James Bible has it wrong, that the original Hebrew refers to "the sea of reeds"where the Egyptians were enveloped in water whilst chasing the Israelites, and it was a phonetic translation of "reeds" and "red" lead to the error.
Anyone??
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Philosophy/religion
The "Red Sea" being actually the "Sea of Reeds.."
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Pan · 08/05/2008 23:03
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