I've been reading a lot about menopause and perimenopause and keep coming across this term online and in books. It seems the idea is that fluctuations of estrogen rather than low levels of estrogen cause symptoms, plus very low progesterone...So someone in peri may have high estrogen with fluctuations and not enough progesterone which is causing their symptoms. Dr Lee's book, What your Doctor may not tell you about Premenopause (which was recommended on MN) talks a lot about it too. Just wondering if anyone has more understanding of this?
I get the idea that if you don't ovulate in a cycle then progesterone is not released in the second part of the cycle. But lots of symptoms of peri point to low estrogen not too much...
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Menopause
Estrogen dominance, is it a real thing? Perimenopause
4 replies
FrameyMcFrame · 15/05/2016 08:26
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