I'm curious to know why as yet (as far as I know) there's been no legal challenge to the legal status of the referendum outcome.
If a proportion of the Brexit supporters voted 'Leave' based on the false claim of the amount of money which would go into the NHS (saved from 'subscription' to the EU) - surely this makes the referendum outcome invalid?
Or can anyone claim any old nonsense in the course of a referendum campaign and if people are misled, then it's just a case of 'caveat emptor'?
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Can a repeat referendum be forced?
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dotnet · 01/07/2016 08:53
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