I have long term pain issues and damage caused by what a friendly physio once called 'the most extreme case of joint hypermobility I've ever seen', blah blah, long story. Just moved up the prescription painkiller ladder from codeine to dihydrocodeine. My GP said this is 'what codeine breaks down into' but I didn't get the chance to ask what he meant by that. Are they the same drug but a higher dose? If so what's the point in changing, why not just prescribe more of the former? Can anyone explain?
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Any pharmacists/other persons experienced with opiates help me out?
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iloveeverykindofcat · 11/05/2016 10:11
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