Hello, I just wondered if anyone could give me a bit of advice on how I was selected for redundancy because I can't see how the way I was selected could be judged fair - but maybe I am missing something.
By means of background I had a European wide role, the company also had a rep located in each of the big European countries doing similar work to me. I reported to the European director with oversight of my work area. Things were a bit strained at work because my boss took exception to me taking maternity leave. He made life quite difficult for me. I am not just saying that, I can demonstrate it and raised a grievance about it. Anyway I went on ML for 12 months and on my first day back at work was told I was at risk of redundancy and surprise surprise was made redundant a few weeks later.
My query relates to how I was selected. I feel my employer took advantage of a fall in revenue to get rid of me (for taking ML and probably because they feared me taking ML again).
Basically they did this by dividing my work between my colleagues - and therefore eliminating my role. They are effectively managing my role as they did while I was on maternity leave and have actually said in writing that it has proven to be effective managing my work in this way so that's how they want to continue. I can't help feeling this is totally unfair and me taking maternity leave is the direct cause of my redundancy. The company is adamant that this isn't unfair in any way. Does anyone know if this sounds legitimate?
The other thing is that my colleagues took on my work. But yet I was considered as a pool of one and there was no selection process.
So effectively, there was a reorganisation, it was decided less people were needed to perform the tasks, my tasks were merged with other roles and I therefore had no work and was made redundant. Isn't there a step missing? When my tasks were allocated to other roles shouldn't there have been a selection process involving me and the other post holders to determine who should perform the remaining roles?
Is it possible that the absence of a selection process could be justified?
If this is a legitimate process it really does seem to be the perfect loophole for an employer to get rid of staff who take maternity leave.
I'd be really grateful for your thoughts
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Am I missing something - redundancy selection process
7 replies
Tippitytoes · 23/03/2013 15:35
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