I don't know why I can't get my head round this!
If DH has a 50/50 chance of having inherited a gene mutation, and if he does our DD has a 50/50 chance of inheriting it from him...
Does that mean (while we're awaiting his results) she currently has a 50/50 chance of having it because there's as much chance he has as hasn't and in turn the same odds for her, OR a 25% chance because there's 50% chance if he has but 0% if he hasn't?!
It's autosomal dominant, doesn't affect me and doesn't skip generations
Don't know why I can't figure this one out but I know ultimately it's pointless wondering and we will have to wait and see
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AIBU?
To ask an embarrassingly simple maths question?
10 replies
NappinginaMosesBasket · 21/01/2019 04:52
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