Can anyone advise: We own the leasehold of one of 2 flats above a shop. In the past, the building owner had no connection to the shop and the shop paid half of all the service charges, and the flats paid a quarter each. That seemed fair.
Now the building has been sold and the new owner is also going to set up shop downstairs, as the previous shop went out of business (Threshers). Suddenly we (each of the 2 flats) are being asked for half of the considerably increased service charge, while he pays nothing. Is this allowed?
The service charge will also now include a large sum to go towards a reserve fund, something we never previously had. All this money will benefit the shop too.
And does over £3000 pa sound reasonable? Previously it was just over £1000 (for us). It's a 2-bed flat in a small town.... Ouch, ouch, ouch. We're discussing moving.
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Leasehold Service Charges
2 replies
zacklesMum · 31/07/2011 09:56
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