This is complicated so bear with me. I have a friend in another country. She has a daughter by a man who she has nothing to do with. I pushed a little, because I wanted to know why she would deny her daughter any relationship with her father. I knew she had got pregnant by him once before and had miscarried, as this happened just before a trip we took together. She told me the full story.
So, she found out she was pregnant, and the pregnancy was confirmed by her gynaecologist (in the US). He took her blood, etc, and told her she was about 10 weeks pregnant. Their relationship was very on off, when he found out she was pregnant, he came to see her and they went to bed. During sex, he claimed he needed to go to the bathroom. He returned, continued and finished. Hours later she started cramping painfully. She saw her doctor the next day and he said, I can't explain this, but your progesterone levels are zero. ZERO.
She thought no more about it. Got over miscarriage. Months later she complained to her bf that her period wouldn't arrive, felt bloated etc. She knew she wasn't pg but it seems he thought she was. Later, they were having sex and he did this same strange thing again (he had not done it since the last time) - he went to the bathroom. She looked in the crack in the door after him and he was getting something out of his sponge bag. As before, he came back in, and came inside her.
His sister is a nurse. Is there any way, in this country, that people could get hold of mifepristone and is it technically possible to induce a medical abortion in this way? COuld he have done this?
I have had a medical abortion (RU486) and the cramping she described rang very true. When I had it they put the pill on the end of a tampon which I had to insert.
Could he possibly have done this?
My blood ran cold when she told me.
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trubbliphone · 22/02/2013 20:47
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D0G ·
22/02/2013 20:57
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ginmakesitallok ·
22/02/2013 21:05
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waltermittymissus ·
22/02/2013 21:07
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