I realise I'm probably going to sound stupid, but I just cannot get my head around this.
I know it wasn't made illegal until 1991 (I was born in 1991 which just makes it even more to me) but surely a man just couldn't get away with raping a woman just because she was his wife before 1991?
So let's just say it's 1990 and a woman goes to the police because she has been raped and she wants to report it. However the man who raped her was her husband.
Would the police seriously not investigate or do anything just because it was her husband who raped her? Or would they not be able to do anything even if they wanted to because technically according to the law no crime had been committed?
I find it completely unbelievable that it wasn't a crime for so long.
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Feminism: Sex & gender discussions
I understand that rape within marriage was not made illegal until 1991
92 replies
ToadsJustFellFromTheSky · 04/09/2016 20:12
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