Someone told me recently that their DD was refused a lease for a house on the basis that they failed the 'affordability' test ( set by the agent?). This was based on monthly rental being no more than x% of their salary. They would have been able to afford it quite easily but the agent ( or landlord) had created this scale of rent/earnings.
Is this so? What about someone who has low earnings but lots of savings ( eg £100K for argument's sake) , references and a good credit rating?
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Query about rentals and credit worthiness etc.-sort of
3 replies
Bumpetybumps · 03/01/2015 19:40
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