I've just got back from my last midwife appointment before I'm handed over to my hospital consultant. I'm 39+5 with #2 and asked the midwife for a sweep as I'm hoping for a VBAC and our hospital's policy is c/s at 41 weeks, and inductions only under very specific circumstances - I'd like to avoid both of those so I don't want to leave anything to chance more than I have to at the moment.
Anyway, my internal showed a high, closed, posterior cervix i.e. totally not ripe and her diagnosis was 'not favourable'. I can't hardly believe this as I've been waddling with baby's head part engaged for a good few weeks now. I've got piles and a sore tailbone so I can't hardly sit down and my pelvis creaks if I so much as stand up, so I kinda presumed that I would at least be ripening
Which gets me to wondering... How long did it take you from being 'unfavourable' (if you ever had an examination showing that) to being 'favourable' or even going into labour.
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Pregnancy
Being 'favourable'
4 replies
manyhatson · 18/06/2009 14:33
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