ChristmasPeace
You say there are no contradictions in the Bible and...
"Find me an example that YOU have studied out (not just cut and paste from an atheist website without researching it thoroughly and fairly) and I am happy to explain it further to you."
Sorry, but you have volunteered. These are questions I'm frequently asked by my RS class. I can give them the theological response and mythological responses, but as I'm not a Christian, I can never really explain what a Biblical literalist would say. So if you don't mind ...
Right...
What is the order of creation? Genesis 1 says fish, birds, land animals and then man as the pinnacle of creation. But Genesis 2 has Adam created first, then the animals, then no suitable helper is found so Eve is made. How do you account for the two different account?. I usually refer to the change in authors in Genesis 2v4a... but for Biblical literalists, this does not work.
Secondly, in Genesis 1 you have day and night several days before the sun and moon being created. How does this work...?
Now onto New Testament:
The genealogies of Luke says Jesus was descended from Joseph, Eli, Matthat, Levi, Melchi etc... all the way back to David. But the genealogy in Matthew is different... Joseph, Jacob, Matthan, Eleazar, Eliud,Achim etc... these are totally different genealogies. Now, if this is taken mythically there is no problem, but if you take this literally and used to justify that Jesus was descended from David (which enables him to claim to be the Messiah), then how do you account for these differences? If you can answer this one, it would be great, because my A level class are currently studying demythologisation of the Bible and they only asked me this last week, and of course, I could not answer them!
And finally, In Matthew 2, it says Jesus was born under the rule of Herod, but in Luke 2, it says Jesus was born under the rule of Quirinius in Syria (who commissioned the census). But historical records show Herod died sometime between 6 and 4 BCE, but Quirinius was not governor until 6CE, so approx 10 years after the death of Herod. Clearly, unless Jesus was born twice, both can't be true. So how do Biblical literalists explain this discrepancy? Many Theologians would say that the census never happened, it's just a literary tool to get Jesus to Bethlehem to be born, so he can fulfil the prophecy, but of course Biblical literalists won't accept that, so how would they account for this?
If you can please answer these questions, I would really appreciate it. I don't want the "official" answer - I can give them theological doctrine, but it's how Christians individually respond to these issues that the students ask... so if you don't mind, I'd be most obliged! Thank you