Can any legal experts give me some advice on the following scenario? Many thanks.
A woman in her forties, single, no DC, owned own home had written a Will leaving everything to her parents and brother. This woman then met someone who moved into her home and they married shortly after. Three years later, the marriage failed. Would the husband have a case for claiming some of the house, even if he hadn't contributed to the mortgage, was not named on the title deeds or mortgage and was not a beneficiary in the earlier Will?
Would be very grateful for your advice, which is for a dear friend of mine.
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Does a Will take priority over marriage?
13 replies
Spickle · 16/02/2014 20:02
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