My DH has been working 2 days a week at a shop for the last 4 years. He works Wednesday and Friday. Pay day is Friday, so he has always had his wages in cash on Friday at the end of the day.
His emplyer has now decided that everyone has to work a 'week in hand' so he will not be paid this Friday but the Friday after?
Can an employer start this after 4 years?
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Can an employer do this? - Pay Related
1 reply
BrokenBananaTantrum · 15/07/2013 14:51
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