I've changed my name for this - unlikely as it is he'll be on Mumsnet. I own a property, as Tenant in Common, with 'someone else'. Neither of us live in it. He owns a greater share than me. He wants to buy me out, and because of his behaviour I want out too. He has (allegedly) spent money and done work on the place (he's not the only one) without consultation or my agreement, in fact, against my wishes. We don't have a Treaty of Agreement (or whatever it's called) laying out who should own what in such circumstances. However, he wants to deduct the money (a lot! And is threatening me with legal action) he says he's spent from the price he's offering.
My question is, (I know either party can 'force a sale', expensively, and through the courts), but can he force me to sell to him? And am I obliged to accept the price he's offering? Also, if I agree to bear my share of the cost of the work (in spite of never agreeing to it in the first place), am I not also entitled to a share of the (supposed) increase in value? It seems to me, at this rate he could go on spending money and end up demanding my entire share to pay for it. Any thoughts welcome.
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Legal matters
Obnoxious 'Tenant in Common' - property question
5 replies
wetfoot · 01/09/2011 03:01
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