Hi all,
I'm 36 and DH is 42. I've always been sure we'd find having a baby difficult for some reason but assumed the problem would be me (despite the fact I have 3 yr old DS from previous relationship).
Anyway, we got engaged in Nov and stopped using contraception but didn't actively try and target ovulation dates or anything and DH was often so knackered we'd go 3 or 4 days in a row without sex. Nothing happened.
Then we got married last month and decided to be more 'active' at ttc. We tried to have sex every other day and I used pre-seed (not sure I have much cervical mucus. Sorry about TMI). I got my period yesterday.
Right, into the scientific stuff. For reasons unrelated to ttc DH had a SA (basically he had testicuar cancer 10 yrs ago, and in case they did chemo they took a semen sample. They didn't do chemo but stored it. He was asked to do a SA to see if he was fertile and it could be destroyed). The SA revealed that his sperm count was 14 mill and his normal form morphology was 3%. Everything else was 'within normal parameters'. At the appt I had no idea what to ask so when they said they were basically satisfied that to use a sample of his current sperm he could conceive (I paraphrase) I just accepted it.
It was only when we got back and I analysed the results properly ie googled like mad that I realised that neither of those are good at all and could well be the reason we haven't conceived (providing I am ovulating each month of course!)
As time is of the essence do we give it a bit longer or go straight to get some help do you think?
Thank you for any advice or shared experience!
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Normal forms 3%/ sperm count 14 mill- what's next?
1 reply
LittleMouseontheDairy · 30/05/2015 09:13
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