Progesterone blood test results.(8 Posts)
Hi, I'm hoping someone can help, i have just started a fertility 'MOT' after a year of unsuccessful trying to conceive. I got the results of my CD22 progesterone blood test today and as it's a while till I see the doctor next I'm just wondering if my result is 'normal'! My usual cycle is 30-36 days with an average of 33-34. I have been temp charting and always have a temp increase 14 days before AF so I read that as a very regular 14 day luteal phase. If anyone knows anything about progesterone levels I would be grateful for any advice! Cheers!
You are wondering if your progesterone result is normal? What is the result??
So sorry for delayed response. I am no expert and so wanted to dig up some information that I personally found particularly informative to quote to you. Here it is:
Progesterone levels after ovulation (midluteal, middle of the second half of the cycle) in a nonpregnant patient are generally at least 8-10 ng/ml (25.44 - 31.8 nmol/L). Much lower levels usually mean you did not ovulate. If you are pregnant, progesterone levels are usually at least 10-12 (31.8 - 38.16 nmol/L) ng/ml to have a better chance of a good pregnancy outcome and most doctors like to see progesterone levels around 16-18 ng/ml (50.88 - 57.24 nmol/L) or more though there are many successful pregnancies with lower levels.
Of course, now you are probably thinking the worst as the above info ways prog should be at least 25.44 and yours was 20.5. But a progesterone test is usually done mid-luteal phase. If the cycle in which you got your blood tested was 34 days, and you ovulate 14 days before AF, then your progesterone would peak on day 27. So when you got your levels tested at day 22, the progesterone probably hadn't yet reached it's peak.
Actually, longer cycles are associated with increased fertility, and our cycles shorten as we head towards menopause. Mine can be as short as 24 days, so from an objective viewpoint, your cycle seems very healthy and fertile - I am jealous! I have had 5 failed IVF's and am sure that my light short cycle is making things difficult (although our primary diagnosis is that my husbands sperm is 100% abnromal).
Of course, all this is no reassurance when it doesn't answer why you have not fallen pregnant. I take it that you are just at the beginning of the process of getting tested. When do you see your specialist to get some answers?
It's worth working out how long it actually was between the test and the start of your next period - I got a slightly low result first time round but that was from a sample taken 8 days before AF and the test report said it was only valid if the test was done 7 days before. There's a good chance the lower than normal levels just mean it was done too early, particularly as you have long cycles.
Anyway, even if the timing was spot on it's still worth getting the test done again (maybe a bit later in the cycle) as things may vary month to month.
I had a similar result (24 I think) and my gp said this was indicative of a late ovulation so is sending me for cd21 bloods and cd25 bloods (I have a 28-29 day cycle) to see if I ovulate later. Perhaps worth seeing if they will do the same for you?
Progesterone measurement is only part of the story though.
Ovulation is not an exact science and a person can ovulate earlier, later or not at all in any given cycle.
Has your man been tested to date; I ask as subfertility is not the sole preserve of the woman. He should be tested now as a matter of course.
I would see if you can have day 2 tests done to check and compare your LH level against that of your FSH level. If these are awry then ovulation will be affected.
Is GP prepared to now refer you to a subfertility unit?.
You are so right Attila about subfertility not being the sole preserve of the woman. We often think because we carry the baby it is our responsibility and I wasted a year investigating myself before discovering hubby has 100% abnormal sperm.
Sorry to invade this thread but can I ask you a question Attila. I have read before that day 2/3 FSH and LH ratio should be close to one to one. First test FSH was 4 and LH was 3 but after a few IVF's, my FSH is now higher and LH low. I know that high FSH means ovaries are needing to be pushed harder to produce eggs, but new knew why the LH /FSH ratio had to be close to 1:1. You are the only other person that has mentioned this. Do you know any more about this any why it is important? How does this affect ovulation?
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