Not a TAAT but inspired by another thread...
If (and I realise it's a big if and very theoretical) reparations were made to descendants of slaves.
Would there be an argument to do the same for descendants of the Irish famine?
I can see arguments both ways - in one sense they weren't slaves, so the argument could be that the line is simply drawn there.
However:
- They were victims of genocide (IMO)
- They lost family and were forced, through starvation, to leave their homes and culture
- I don't have any studies to prove this but I suspect their descendants are, on average, are disadvantaged compared to the descendants of the ruling English class and I suspect there's not been that much mixing of the two sets of descendants in reality (even though I disprove this point because I've married someone with quite the posh family history once I looked into it)
- They suffered a massive amount of racism when they came to the UK ("no blacks, no Irish, no dogs")
I'm not wedded to some kind of campaign by the way - just wondered on people's thoughts.
Wasn't sure where to put it so chose history!