Sorry if this is long. Dh's company recently made some redundancies. Dh would have been made redundant but they found an alternative role (I have issues with this as they scored him 0 for self managing then told him he'd be perfect for this self-managing role but anyway, it was a job and he didn't appeal anything cos of this).
He had already started looking for a job and was offered one of the ones he'd applied for. So, as it paid better, he decided to take it. He handed his notice in and after discussing the situation with his bosses (basically he hadn't fully started the new role he'd been offered and was handing over his old work anyway) they said he could finish on the 8th (Friday). He wasn't told at the time but has since been told and had written confirmation that he will only be paid until the 8th and is not being paid in lieu of notice . Is this right?
Now, the holiday at dh's works whereby you can 'borrow' holiday from the following year. For various reasons (new baby generally) he borrowed 6 days from 2010. He's will have worked 6 days in 2010. Today he's heard a rumour (from the person who used to do payroll) that they won't pay him anything this month because of the holiday he's taken is this right? He's working these days for nothing?
All his contract says is that any borrowed holiday has to be repaid, it doesn't say whether it can just be taken from his pay.
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Can employer make this deduction from pay?
5 replies
anon1234567 · 04/01/2010 18:53
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