Sorry it is me again with my endless work issues...
Question: If a company gives additional holidays for length of employement (e.g. 1 day additional up to a max of 30 days) should this be applied to all employees of the company or can it be applied just to some?
Your question sounds a bit hypothetical, can you be more direct? I assume you are not benefiting from this? Do you know why? Is there a group who do or don't get this benefit and if so, what are their characteristics?
It is a big company. Headquarters are in a different country. We are the buying office in the UK.
When it comes to discuss salaries you are told the company is doing very badly.
On the other hand the company is doing very well when it comes to how much more work you get. I was told at meeting that orders have doubled and higher.
Basically it is just a stingy company. I know exactly how much the profits are as I prepare the figures?????
Of course I am not expecting the same salary as my boss.
However when you get a new position including taking on much more responsibility and overlooking/mentoring four employees (e.g. "promotion") I think the salaray should reflect as well this "promotion".
Twenty days standard yes, plus bank holidays.
One more point: Before ML I was starting work at 8.45 (instead of 9.30, about 1.45 minutes free overtime I was working) because I had so much work. Bosses very much "Encouraged" this.
When I requestested compressed hours, to actually start my paid work at 8.45 it was refused as it was unpractical.
These are the kind of "policies" of my company.....