I have been married to my wife for 9 years - we are in the process of splitting up - Now upon marriage her father asked me to sign a document which didnt entitle me to any financial gain to the house prior to our meeting. Although after 9 years of marriage and paying into the house, Am I right in thinking I must be entitled to something, as they are adamant im entitled to nothing - The house has always remained in her fathers name
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Divorce/separation
Does a Husband have rights if the house is in the fathers name
9 replies
Nashy1975 · 15/05/2017 08:22
OP posts:
babybarrister ·
16/05/2017 07:40
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