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Divorce/separation

Does a Husband have rights if the house is in the fathers name

9 replies

Nashy1975 · 15/05/2017 08:22

I have been married to my wife for 9 years - we are in the process of splitting up - Now upon marriage her father asked me to sign a document which didnt entitle me to any financial gain to the house prior to our meeting. Although after 9 years of marriage and paying into the house, Am I right in thinking I must be entitled to something, as they are adamant im entitled to nothing - The house has always remained in her fathers name

OP posts:
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PurpleWithRed · 15/05/2017 08:25

You need to take legal advice. But on the face of it I'd say no, the house belongs to her father, if you chose to 'pay into it' it that would be like paying rent and wouldn't entitle you to anything.

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AlternativeTentacle · 15/05/2017 08:26

So basically renting? I can't see that you would be entitled to a share in a rental unless you were married to the owner.

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WellErrr · 15/05/2017 08:34

Don't think so if you haven't been paying the mortgage, and you signed away your rights. But you need proper advice.

Out of interest, why are you splitting up?

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Penfold007 · 15/05/2017 09:16

Paying what into the house? If it's his house and you and STBXW are tenants neither of you are entitled to anything.

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FrenchMartiniTime · 15/05/2017 09:21

Unfortunately no.

You were effectively a tennant in your FILs house.

Why on earth did you sign an agreement like that? Doesn't sound like it started your marriage on a positive footing OP.

Do you have DC?

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meditrina · 15/05/2017 09:27

Neither you nor your DW is entitled to own any share of a property simply because you have been lucky enough to live there rent-free for a period.

It would be worth taking proper legal advice on the likely financial settlement as a whole. You need to consider provision for DC, the division of major assets (no property in your case, but savings/debts and pensions, major items etc) and any other features individual to your circumstances.

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BillyButtfuck · 15/05/2017 10:11

Absolutely not and you should never have signed anything which you did not fully understand.

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Nashy1975 · 15/05/2017 14:11

I know it was a foolish thing to do, but I didn't marry her for her money, so was happy to sign the document - Although since becoming her husband and paying £1200 into her account each month - I just thought I would have a claim on the accrument of the in value since the marriage.

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babybarrister · 16/05/2017 07:40

This reply has been deleted

Message withdrawn at poster's request.

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