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Does a Husband have rights if the house is in the fathers name

(10 Posts)
Nashy1975 Mon 15-May-17 08:22:33

I have been married to my wife for 9 years - we are in the process of splitting up - Now upon marriage her father asked me to sign a document which didnt entitle me to any financial gain to the house prior to our meeting. Although after 9 years of marriage and paying into the house, Am I right in thinking I must be entitled to something, as they are adamant im entitled to nothing - The house has always remained in her fathers name

OP’s posts: |
PurpleWithRed Mon 15-May-17 08:25:16

You need to take legal advice. But on the face of it I'd say no, the house belongs to her father, if you chose to 'pay into it' it that would be like paying rent and wouldn't entitle you to anything.

AlternativeTentacle Mon 15-May-17 08:26:07

So basically renting? I can't see that you would be entitled to a share in a rental unless you were married to the owner.

WellErrr Mon 15-May-17 08:34:28

Don't think so if you haven't been paying the mortgage, and you signed away your rights. But you need proper advice.

Out of interest, why are you splitting up?

Penfold007 Mon 15-May-17 09:16:59

Paying what into the house? If it's his house and you and STBXW are tenants neither of you are entitled to anything.

FrenchMartiniTime Mon 15-May-17 09:21:10

Unfortunately no.

You were effectively a tennant in your FILs house.

Why on earth did you sign an agreement like that? Doesn't sound like it started your marriage on a positive footing OP.

Do you have DC?

meditrina Mon 15-May-17 09:27:33

Neither you nor your DW is entitled to own any share of a property simply because you have been lucky enough to live there rent-free for a period.

It would be worth taking proper legal advice on the likely financial settlement as a whole. You need to consider provision for DC, the division of major assets (no property in your case, but savings/debts and pensions, major items etc) and any other features individual to your circumstances.

BillyButtfuck Mon 15-May-17 10:11:03

Absolutely not and you should never have signed anything which you did not fully understand.

Nashy1975 Mon 15-May-17 14:11:07

I know it was a foolish thing to do, but I didn't marry her for her money, so was happy to sign the document - Although since becoming her husband and paying £1200 into her account each month - I just thought I would have a claim on the accrument of the in value since the marriage.

OP’s posts: |
babybarrister Tue 16-May-17 07:40:58

Message withdrawn at poster's request.

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