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Divorce/separation

Dividing up assets

3 replies

samanthaandrewsuk · 05/10/2015 07:32

x left me 2 years ago for another woman. I discussed divorce & he beat me to it citing unreasonable behaviour whereas I was going for adultery.
Thus I was the respondent.
Divorced last year, without settlement.
Only significant asset is property in Spain but he is stalling to sell.
I am now remarried & told for that reason & as I was the respondent, I can't take him to court to get my share after a forced sale.
There must be a way in this country I can legally get my share - help!

OP posts:
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Shutthatdoor · 05/10/2015 07:38

You need legal advice.

The fact that you have remarried without settlement makes any claim you may have quite difficult.

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FishWithABicycle · 05/10/2015 07:56

Don't rely on a bunch of strangers in a chat forum for something this important! You need real legal advice. Is your name on the deeds of the Spanish property? If you can block any sale by refusing to sign unless you get your share then you might have a chance. If Spanish law will let him sell and take all the money then I am unsure how you could force any of the money to come your way. What kind of order of magnitude of money is this? A legal battle like this could cost thousands.

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Richywalters12 · 13/10/2015 23:05

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