Background-<br><br>Divorced 5 years ago, he left and divorced me (another woman and dv involved). Exh messed about with mediation and no financial agreement was made. I remained in the house with the children (two have disabilities and I have a (now more serious) physical disability) and I remarried recently. <br><br>Exh took me to financial court and the judge suggested at fdr that I had overwhelming needs so should retain the house. Since then it has come to light that s 2 8 (3) means that I potentially have no claim/right against the property despite paying the full (massive!) deposit and paying the mortgage in full myself since before he left because I remarried! <br><br>Can any legal people help me out? I've googled it to death, my solicitors are stumped and final hearing is not far away...