DH and I have been married 3 years. 'We' bought the house we're currently in in March. The mortgage was taken out in his name only as I am not working (SAHM) and we were advised that would mean a less favourable mortgage deal. So... his name on the mortgage and subsequently only his name on the deeds (even though it's as much a home for me and our 2 kids as it is for him). I have some money which I inherited and we are going to use it to do vital extension and decorating work on the house. BUT should I part with the money if I am not named as owner of the house and secondly, how can I get named on the deeds? We have asked but the mortgage adviser said it would mean renegotiating the terms of the mortgage. Is that true because it sounds a bit weird to me?
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