I'm curious about this and the other thread seems to have moved on.
I'll repeat myself. By allowing abortion for cases of rape, the RC church seems to accept the rights of a woman over a fetus. Why does this not apply then to whatever reason a woman has for seeking an abortion? Is there a 'sliding-scale' of worthiness?
Is rape only accepted as a reason if the rapist was not the husband or partner?
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Why is abortion allowed in RC countries for rape but not for pregnancies conceived in violent relationships?
24 replies
Bubble99 · 11/02/2007 21:06
OP posts:
Muminfife ·
11/02/2007 23:17
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Muminfife ·
11/02/2007 23:34
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