My DH has been informed that he is at risk of redundancy and is currently in a consultancy period.
His company has two types of contract one is connected with the automotive industry and this is the one that he has. Of the staff with this contract, 40 people have been notified in writing that they are at risk (out of approx 70) with 35 actually going on the 2 Feb.
He has asked when he will actually be given notice as his contract does not include an option to be paid in lieu but has been told that he will be told and leave on the 2 Feb.
This means that no notice will be given, are the company therefore in breach of contract?
On the 2nd of Feb he will be shy of 2 years employment by 5 days therefore will only get one weeks pay. If notice is given correctly on the 2nd, he will have been there 2 years and entitled to 2 weeks redundancy pay, is this correct?
He has a few days of banked hours from extended shutdown at Christmas. There is no provision for any hours to be clawed back in his contract and he and the other workers were told en masse at an union meeting outside of works time that was hijacked by the MD that the MD would not claw back hours - he is now back tracking on this, can he do this?
The other issue is that that the staff that are on the other contract (and not at risk of redundancy) will be used once these redundancies have been made to fulfill the positions - does this mean then that the redundancies should not be made as the positions are not actually redundant?
thanks for reading - sorry it is a bit long.
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at risk of redundancy but no notice being given
7 replies
dennymosh · 20/01/2009 12:45
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