Hi,
As some people may be aware I am in the process of fighting a case where the CEO of my company has effectively asked me to resign during a flexi-time request time meeting. I was told in no uncertain terms just 3 weeks before I planned to return that I would have to be prepared to travel to Selby possibly for weeks on end as soon as I return. I can't do this. The company knows I can't do this. Earlier on in the flexi-work process my employer has also broken legislation by failing to provide with adequate reasons (no explanations provided and refusal to provide when asked!) why my claim was rejected. I have checked the BERR website on this.
The employment lawyer has consulted me on my case and believes I must raise a grievance ASAP and that I must resign since I can't go to Selby for weeks on end and also because the company clearly asked me to do this is an appeal meeting so that I might resign. I am going to get a second opinion before I resign but I am definitely going to raise a grievance as I can't go back to that company realistically. The CEO has made it clear I am not wanted there so where is there for me to hide?
To demonstrate what I am up against, in the appeal meeting I told the CEO that there is no problem for me to go to London at 8am in the morning and that I have very flexible child care arrangements. The CEO just said 'Your childcare arrangements are your problem. They are not ours!' This was just one example of the sort of thing I have had to tolerate.
The question I have is that I believe that I have suffered indirect discrimination since my boss has unjustifiably asked me to do something that I can't based on my gender. However I am the only woman who does this particular role within the organisation (which in my opinion makes me more vulnerable not less and is indeed why they want to get rid of me) However does that mean I can't claim it is indirect discrimination?
Also if a Company bullies and harrasses someone because they feel they cannot do their role the same way because of their gender would that be indirect or direct discrimination? Or would it be something else? An employment lawyer said that legally deliberately flouting the 'Right to Request' regulations by a) refusing to provide explanations and b) using the 'Right to Request' act as a means to push me into resigning is in itself an act of discrimination. However if this is the case then I would assume that it would be classed as direct discrimination?
I did not have time to discuss these points with an employment lawyer as it was only a 1 hour consultantion. However I think if I am going to raise a grievance I need to understand what counts as discrimination and what doesn't as any mistake at this point might be costly. I am probably going to need to pay someone to help me write it.
Just wondering though if anyone can help shed any light onto this issue ?
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Question on arguing a discrimination case - different types of discrimination question
37 replies
Varanasi · 17/02/2008 10:44
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