This is about a friend. She's 16 weeks pregnant and her doctor is pushing for her to be induced, even though there are no signs of preeclampsia in this pregnany. She is in her late 30s so he cites that as another good reason.
Would the 2 things together mean she is better off being induced or do neither of these things matter?
Thanks
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Childbirth
If there's a previous history of Preeclampsia, is a subsequent baby usually induced?
17 replies
Aderyn · 12/01/2007 13:36
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