Said to me by doctor at the hospital where I will be giving birth. She wanted to convince me to wean ds before the birth. I'm 28+1 and he's showing no signs of self-weaning, in fact just the opposite, and I don't intend to wean him. But according to this doctor dc2 will not get milk appropriate to his stage, but rather the 'mature' milk ds has been getting, because I will not produce any colostrum.
Bolleaux, surely?
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Infant feeding
'If you bd while pg you will not produce colostrum after the birth'. This is definitely wrong, isn't it?
berolina · 23/06/2007 21:04
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