keeping my money for myself, but asking for some of the OH profit in house sale(223 Posts)
So, before my OH and I got together, I owned a house and they owned a house.
We got together, I moved into THEIR house and rented my house out.
we BOTH paid into a joint account for about 7 years and split the mortgage payments and household/living expenses equally (based on income) on the house we were living in, and for the last three years i have been the sole contributor to the joint account, whilst the other house (my old one) ticked along paying for itself via tenants.
Last year I sold my house eventually and got a nice little sum of £'s.
We are now going to sell the house we are living in. My question..
AIBU if I keep all of the profit from my house AND expect a percentage of the profit the new house has made from the date i have been contributing/paying the mortgage?
My OH believes that we should also spilt the profit made from the sale of my house because we just happened to have chose THEIR house to live in, but I say, imagine that i had SOLD my house as soon as i moved out of it to move into the OH's house and the invested that money into, say, stocks and shares which then went on to make a nice profit (about the same as the profit i made on my initial investment in the house for instance!) would they THEN be entitled to that profit? I see the keeping on of the house as a continuing INVESTMENT of my money, so my OH has no claim on any of it, but when i started contributing to the mortgage of the OH's house, i TOO became a joint investor in THAT investment...
Emotion aside, what are peoples thoughts on this?
(sorry for length..and that something i NEVER thought i'd be saying)...
Sorry, I'm confused- who are the multiple people in the 'they owned' and 'their house'? Is there also an ex-spouse to be paid off?
I'm guessing saying 'they' so don't reveal gender, but my head hurts from it so good luck op.
I think yabu.
Firstly, you wouldn't have been able to rent out your property, and in turn, have your tennants pay your mortgage (minus tax etc) without the help of your OH, ie living in his house. Ok you could have invested in stocks and shares, however the profit would be considerably less. Your choice!
So yes, I believe you owe him some of the proceeds of your house.
I also think you deserve to have a percentage of the profits from your OH house, as you paid into the mortgage, upkeep etc.
That OP would make more sense if you used the appropriate pronouns.
Then we could discuss things like why you have been the only contributor to the joint account (e.g., whether you are the father and 'OH' is the mother and hence not working for that reason).
As it is it's a waste of time.
Jesus. Is this your life partner you're talking about? Sounds like you have a business together not a relationship.
OK i figured it might me a little confusing, so sorry! I will try and break it down:
There are no other parties involved apart from ME and my OH.
Two houses, or 'investments'. Two profits.
One profit from an investment by ME on my own (no contribution from the OH at all).
One profit from an investment STARTED by my OH, but then jointly invested in by us both for the past ten years.
Is my OH entitled to any of the profit from the investment started by me?
Am I entitled to any of the profit from the investment started by them, but then jointly contributed to by us BOTH for the past ten years?
Does that simplify the question(s)?
If you are buying a new house will all profits from both sales not go to new house? TBH if it was me I'd see everything as joint. It would worry me if you were my partner and this was how you were being.
I'm not quite clear on all the payments etc - have you been paying all of the mortgage and expenses for the last 3 years? If you had just been contributing to the costs then I would have seen it as in effect paying rent, but it puts a different slant on it if you have been keeping the whole thing going. But there's other issues such as: are you married? do you have kids? if you have kids has your OH stopped work?
No it is not broken down.
The only people that use 'they' to refer to their partner, in my experience are:
* men on mumsnet pretending to be women
* gay people not wanting to let on that they are gay
Now, which is it? My money is on the former, but do please tell.
I agree with flipping.
The reason you have been able to profit from the sale of your house is because you haven't needed to live in it.
Are you married?
I don't really understand this 'my money and his money' thing, tbh.
It is clear to me that you feel you should benefit from the sale of your OH house as you have paid in to it. I agree but the percentage needs to be fair.
Your OH feels he should benefit from the sale of your singly owned house but you don't as he has never paid into the house.
Would you have been able to keep the house and benefit from the rental income if you hadn't moved into your OH house? ie would you have bought/rented somewhere else?
in camp patpig on this one.
You sound like a loving devoted couple.....not!!
I think YABU - you were quite happy to keep the money from the sale of your house so really, your OH should get to keep the money from the sale of his house. You would have had bills etc to pay regardless of whose house you were living in so that is a mute point really.
ginger much of your profit on your original investment was made possible by having tenants in it to pay the mortgage while property prices rose.
You would not have been able to do that without living in your OH's house.
You paid towards the mortgage, but you are claiming that as a reason for claiming part of the rise in investment in the "joint" property.
You can't make that contribution do two things at once. Was it rent, or was it co-investment?
i think that you can either:
Call it rent, keep your own profit and let your OH keep his/hers.
Call it mortgage, split the profit on the jointly funded property (pro-rata to the period where you co-invested) and pay your OH the equivalent of a commercial rental for the house you lived in, as his/her share of the profits on your investment.
You wouldn't have been able to sell and make that profit in the first place if you were not living elsewhere, which was in your oh house. So firstly that should be shared. Secondly selling your current place any profit should be again shared. If you intend on living on a mine is mine way then I would think you have bigger issues than just this problem.
Ah, Patpig. Yes. That makes sense.
I answered thinking you were a woman, Ginger, so wasn't biased in any way.
Ok I think OP is male. He moved into his DP home (previously a family home with an EX DH/DP). His house was rented and subsequently sold. Now DP house is being sold. He wants a share of that plus gets to keep the profit from his old home. That's because after living in the DP house rent free up until he sold his, he then paid towards the up keep and running of DP home.
Sorry if I have the gender wrong but it just simplifys things.
If I have it right and the timings are pretty equal (living rent-free / contributing) I wouldn't expect any money from the sale of the current house. Money spent on the house was part of your living costs. Unless you paid for an extension or new kitchen that increased the house price.
What was DP doing while you were the sole contributer?
I assume had your other half known you were going to have such a "mine and yours" attitude towards this they might have asked you to sell your house and invest the money in your now joint house, reducing the mortgage and making it a genuinely joint asset. Regardless, if this is your life partner then I personally would say all assets are joint and should be contributed to and shared equally but I'm old fashioned!
surely people trying to conceal that they are male/gay/martians would normally just lie and write "his" anyway?
anyway, we ought to be giving unbiased advice so I don't care which it is
Ah cross posted and got it all wrong, sorry ignore me.
My brain hurts.
But from the little I can understand, it sounds U to me.
In agreement with the notion that as you were able to live with your partner, your house was freed up to make a profit - and get your mortgage paid for you by the tenants. This wouldn't have been so if you were living in it.
So, in short you are saying "what's mine in mine and what's yours is mine?"
Why have you been the "only contributor" to the joint account for 3 years?
is mine not in mine. Obvs!
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